naruto63 naruto63
  • 02-08-2018
  • Mathematics
contestada

The answer to this math question

The answer to this math question class=

Respuesta :

xjayde28x
xjayde28x xjayde28x
  • 02-08-2018

It is true because 1 and 3 are equivalent due to the vertical angle theorem

and

3 and 2 are equal due to the interior angles theorem.

So, if 1 = 3 and 3 = 2 then 1 = 2

:))

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27rrl00
27rrl00 27rrl00
  • 04-05-2021

Answer:

True

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer Link

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